Sodom and Gomorrah: A closer look

According to one of the Stories in the Book of Genesis, two angels were sent By God to destroy the cities of Sodom and Gomorrah. Because of the sins of their inhabitants. Only Lot along with his family was to be spared, but while making their escape, Lot's wife, ignores the angel's warning not to look back, Turns into a pillar of Salt.

Before this incident, Abraham, pleaded with God, to spare the cities of Sodom n Gomorrah and God said that he would spare the cities, if he could find 10 righteous men in Sodom. God then sent 2 male angels to Sodom. they were greeted by Lot, and were taken into his home. Later that night, The Men of Sodom gathered outside Lot's house and demanded that lot should bring out the men, so that they may KNOW them.

The verse, KNOW THEM, is supposedly to have sexual meaning. Lot then tries to give the men, his virgin daughters, to spare the angels from the wrath of the men of Sodom. But they wanted the angels. The angels, then struck the men causing blindness, and lot was asked to take his family and leave the town, for it was to be destroyed.

This story is used to persecute homosexuals. however, this is a story of ATTEMPTED GANG RAPE, not 2 MEN HAVING CONSENSUAL SEX. Moreover why would Lot offer his virgin daughters, if all the men in the town were gay?

This is a practice that wicked men did to travelers. A similar story is there in Judges 19:13-27, In this story, a Levi and his concubine were travelling and stopped at a town called Gibhia. While they were there, an older man, gave them a place to stay for the night. During the night, a group of men, came to the levi and demanded to have sex with him, but the Levi gave them the concubine instead. The men gang raped her all night till dawn.


This story tells that the men of Sodom were not labelled as they are today and many of them were what we would call Bisexual today.

So Why did God Destroy Sodom and Gomorrah?








The Bible gives us many reasons, and it is NOT because of Homosexuality. In Ezekiel 16:48-50 says the sins of Sodom were Pride, Gluttony, they didnt care about others, they didnt help the poor and needy, They were haughty and did abominations before the Lord. The abominations done by the People of Sodom are not clearly mentioned in the Bible... 
In Jeremiah 23:13-14, it says that men of Sodom committed ADULTERY, and lived a lie, The helped the hands of evil-doers. Adultery by definition is Sex with a married woman. Once more stating that the men of Sodom were not homosexuals.
Jude 1:7 states that The men of Sodom went after strange Flesh. Once again a direct reference to the angels. Strange flesh cannot mean men, so this passage makes a reference to angels.

the NIV says that men of Sodom gave them upto sexual immorality and perversion. (NOTICE THAT NIV CONTAINS NO MENTION OF STRANGE FLESH WHICH IS IN KJV). sexual immorality is Not defined in the Bible as Homosexuality, but refers as a blanket term to many of the sexual sins like Bestiality, adultery, rape, Incest, etc.


Jesus himself mentions Sodom and Gomorrah in Matthew 11:20-24. Here he says that Those who reject the Truth of Christ, will be punished more harshly than the people of Sodom.
In Conclusion, the sins of Sodom were not that they were homosexuals, But according to the Bible, because they were:
> Arrogant
>Overfed and unconcerned
>Didnt help the poor and needy
>Committed sexual immorality and Adultery.
>Tried to rape travelers who came to their city.






So, why is Homosexuality Linked?


Asside from the story of men trying to gang rape the travelers, the word SODOM, SODOMY and SODOMITE have been wrongfully Linked.


Sodom- Was the Place that was destroyed by God.


sodomy- means anal sex between 2 men, and was coined somewhere in the 13th century. This word is nowhere in the bible.


Sodomite- By definition DOES NOT mean a resident of Sodom, but was translated from the hebrew word QUEDESH, which means Shrine prostitute. 


Here are some passages, where The word Sodomite is Used:


Deuteronomy 23:17 "There shall be no whore of the daughters of Israel, nor a sodomite (QUEDESH) of the sons of Israel..."


1 Kings 15:12 "And he took away the sodomites (QUEDESH) out of the land, and removed all the idols that his fathers had made."


2 Kings 23:7 "And he brake down the houses of the sodomites, that were by the house of the LORD, where the women wove hangings for the grove."


Many Christians have Purposely added mis-interpretation to the story to take out their own Prejudice.


So Lets Recap the points:
> The Bible never talks about Homosexuals in Sodom.
>The bible never talks about Long loving committed gay relationships in Sodom.
>The bible NEVER SAYS THAT HOMOSEXUALITY WAS A SIN IN SODOM NOR DOES IT TELLS THAT HOMOSEXUALITY WAS THE REASON FOR ITS DESTRUCTION.
>Sodomite in the Bible, always refers to shrine prostitution.
>Sodomy is not a word from the bible and was coined sometime in the 13th century.


The reason for the destruction of Sodom and Gomorrah is actually faintly present in the Book of Enoch and Genesis 6.  In Genesis 6:2, it says that the sons of God (Angels) had sex with the daughters of Men. for this very reason God decided to destroy men from the face of the world in Genesis 6:7. So, the actual and the most prudent reasons for the  destruction of Sodom, were because the men of Sodom were so wicked that they tried to gang rape the angels, who were as quests in their cities...

So. the reason for Destruction of Sodom and Gomorrah is NOT at all HOMOSEXUALITY, in any perspective, But was Pride, gluttony, inhospitality, helping the hands of evil doers and most of all, Men trying to break the law of God and trying to GANG RAPE the sons of God.
Comparing a story of Attempted gang rape of angels to modern day Long loving monogamous homosexual couples is both absurd and illogical.

Jesus Blessing a GAY centurion: a Closer look

The Greek word used in Matthews account to refer to the servant of the centurion is PAIS. In the language of that time, PAIS had 3 possible MEANINGS:
1. It could mean Son or a Boy
2. It could mean servant
3. It could mean a servant who is his master's MALE LOVER
Often these LOVERS were younger than their masters, even teenagers.

To our Modern day Church pastors and Priests, the idea of this story about a Teen lover seems impossible to believe. But to understand the true story, we have to place ourselves in the ancient cultural norms of those times.

In ancient times commercial transactions were the most predominant means of forming a new relationship. Under the law, The wife was viewed as the Property of her husband (a status just above "slave")
More over in the time when Jesus allegedly lived, a boy and a girl reached the age to marry at 14 or 15. NOR WAS IT UNCOMMON FOR AN OLDER MAN TO MARRY A YOUNGER GIRL.

In that culture, if you were a homosexual man who wanted a male spouse, you achieved this like your heterosexual counterparts, THROUGH A COMMERCIAL TRANSACTION PURCHASING SOMEONE TO SERVE THAT PURPOSE. A servant purchased to serve that purpose was referred to as PAIS.

Coming back to the story of the Centurion and Jesus.
The bible Provides 3 key pieces of textual and circumstantial evidence.
First in Luke passage, Several additional Greek words are used t describe the one who is sick. Luke says that the PAIS was the centurion's ENTIMOS DOULOS.
The word Doulos in generic terms was used to refer to as SLAVE! And was never used to describe a son/boy. Thus this RULES OUT THE POSSIBILITY OF THIS STORY ABOUT BEING OF A SON WHO WAS SICK.

His use of the word DUOLOS clearly means SLAVE! However Luke also indicates that this was NOT an ordinary slave! The word ENTIMOS means honored. So this was an honored slave, who was his master's pais.

so The 3 words rule out the possibility of the sick person being about the Centurion's Son or an ordinary slave, leaving one viable option of the sick person being the Centurion's young male lover!

A second piece of evidence from verse 9 of Matthew's account. In the course of expressing his Jesus's power to heal by simply speaking, the centurion says that the servant does everything the centurion tell him to. When speaking here of his slaves, the centurion uses the word DUOLOS, but when speaking of the one he is asking Jesus to heal, The centurion uses the word PAIS. In other words when he is quoted in Matthew, the centurion's uses only when referring to the sick person.

The third piece of evidence is circumstantial. In the gospels, we have many examples of people seeking healing for themselves or for family members, But this is the only story in which someone seeks help for his slave. This actin was described as more remarkable by the fact that this was a proud roman centurion who was humbling himself and was pleading to a Jewish Rabbi to heal his servant. The Extraordinary length which the centurion took to heal his servant clearly indicates that the sick person was his MALE LOVER!

So, these facts clearly tells us that this story is about a Centurion and his MALE LOVER. and even when Jesus aware of it, He still healed and blessed them. So, Jesus is both Pro-GAY and Pro-LOVE!

Paul On Homosexuality

Romans 2:13 "For not the hearers of the LAW are justified before God, But the doers of the LAW will be justified."

Romans 3:20 "Therefore by the deeds of the LAW there shall be no flesh be Justified in his sight: for by the Law is the knowledge of SIN".


The 4 most paradoxical passages written by Paul are Romans 1:18 to 3:20.
Most Christians are unaware that this passage has remained unsolved for the last 2000 years!

Richard Longenecker (Prof. of new testament at Wheaton College) says
"The interpretation of Romans 1:18 to 3:20 has been notoriously difficult for almost every commentator.... Earlier interpreters, Such as Origen, Jerome, Augustine, and Erasmus wrestled with this issue, and this continues to plague commentators today."

What is so important about Romans 1:18 to 3:20??
Paul's Only Un-equivocal refernce to Homosexuality is in this passage. 

But This passage is NOT talking about Homosexuality by itself, But its talking about a mixture of
HOMOSEXUALITY +IDOLATRY+ ORGIES!

Yet, Paul Does something Stunning in this passage. He excludes IDOLATROUS HOMOSEXUAL ORGIES  from his list of things that are worthy of spiritual death!




Christopher Bryant (prof. of NT at University of South) teaches-
"Even though Paul includes the IDOLATROUS HOMOSEXUAL ORGIES in this passage, "the climax of his discussion of the human rebellion against God is, as we have seen the list of 'Cold' sins, Sins of strength, in Romans 1:28-31- MURDER, STRIFE, DECEIT, MALIGNITY, VICIOUS GOSSIPS, PUBLIC SLANDERERS, HATERS OF GOD, INSOLENT, HAUGHTY, BOASTERS, INVENTORS OF EVIL... FAITHLESS, HEARTLESS, RUTHLESS, These he sees as the most destructive sins, and it is because of these that those who commit them are worthy of 'spiritual death'."


Paul Considered Vicious Gossips to be FAR WORSE from the combination of Homosexuality+Idolatry+ orgies.

This Brings us to the question:
If Paul Didnt consider
HOMOSEXUALITY + IDOALTRY + ORGIES
To be Mortal sins


Would Paul have considered
HOMOSEXUALITY - IDOLATRY - ORGIES
To even be sin at all??